7 Bank Exam Model Question Papers Reasoning Ability

Bank Exam Probationary Officers Model Paper – Reasoning Ability

1) Which characteristics are found either in J or in K or in both but in M?
(a) P, Q, T
(b) P, Q, R, S
(c) Q, R, S, T
(d) U, V, T

2) ‘34’ is related ‘12’ in the same way as ‘59’ is related to—
(a) 45
(b) 14
(c) 42
(d) 38
(e) 47

3) How many meaningful English words can be made with the letters TEBI using each
letter only once in each word ?
(a) None
(b) One
(c) Two
(d) Three
(e) More than three

4) ABEF is related to BCFG in the same way as GHKL is related to … ?
(A) FGKJ
(B) HILM
(C) HIKJ
(D) HIML

5). Vikas walked 10 metres towards North, took a left turn and walked 15 metres and again took a left
turn and walked 10 metres and stopped walking. Towards which direction was he facing when he
stopped walking ?
(a) South
(b) South-West
(c) South-East
(d) Cannot be determined
(e) None of these

6) In a certain code BREAKDOWN is written as BFSCJMVNC. How is ORGANISED
written in that code ?
(a) PSHBMCDRH
(b) BHSPMCDRH
(c) BHSPOCDRH
(d) BHSPNHRDC
(e) None of these

7) 'CIRCLE' is related to 'RICELC' in the same way as 'SQUARE' is related to—
(a) UQSERA
(b) QUSERA
(c) UQSAER
(d) QSUERA

8) How many such 7s are there in the following number sequence each of which is immediately
preceded by 5 and not immediately followed by 8 ?
2 3 5 7 8 9 3 4 5 7 6 1 9 35 7 4 8 3 2 5 7 8 8 9 2 5
(a) None
(b) One
(c) Two
(d) Three
(e) More than three

9) What should come next in the following number series ?
9 8 9 8 7 9 8 7 6 9 8 7 6 5 9 8 7 6 5 4 9 8 7 6 5

(a) 3
(b) 4
(c) 2
(d) 1
(e) None of these
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10) Which one of the following is same as liver, heart, kidney?
(a) Nose
(b) Blood(c) Urine
(d) LungAns

11) If ‘M’ denotes ‘÷’, ‘K, denotes ‘–’, ‘T’ denotes ‘×’ and ‘R’ denotes ‘+’, then—
20 K 16 T 8 M 4 R 6 = ?
(a) 18
(b) – 6
(c) – 12
(d) – 18
(e) None of these

12) Among A, B, C, D and F each scoring different marks in the annual examination, D
scored less than only F among them. B scored more than A and C but less than D. Who
among them scored least marks among them ?
(a) A
(b) C
(c) B
(d) Data inadequate
(e) None of these

13) Which one of the following is same as carpenter, plumber, electrician ?
(a) Doctor
(b) Blacksmith
(c) Teacher
(d) Lawyer

13) B is sister of D. M is father of D. N. is sister of M. How is B related to N ?
(a) Sister
(b) Aunt
(c) Niece
(d) Data inadequate
(e) None of these

14) ( ? ) is to Sun as Rain is to ?
(a) Moon, Rainbow
(b) Light, Cloud
(c) Sky, Wet
(d) Day, Night

0 Model Papers for APPSC, RRB, Civils, Group I, II --Part-1

APPSC, Group I, II, CRPF, Civils, RRB, Assistants, Lectures, Junior Line Mans and other competitive exams
Find Matching Pair and Find word in place of Question Mark

1) Calendar: Date
a). City : PinCode b). Travel : Bus c). Time : Hour d). Dictionary: Word

2) 123 : 14
a). 631 : 46 b). 333 : 24 c). 921 : 85 d). 441 : 32

3) ZYX : 75
a). RDO : 16 b). CTO : 38 c). MRO : 50 d). DSP : 36

4) JTIS : HRGQ :: FPEO : ?
a). DCNQ b). CNDM c). CDNQ d). DNCM

5) 18 : 324 : : 19 : ?
a). 441 b). 361 c). 8281 d). 100

6) Book : Page: : Flower : ?
a). Horns b). Leaves c). Bees

7) ACEG : NPRT : :BDFH : ?
a). OQSU b). QPSU c). OPSU d). OQTU

8) 8 : 27 : 1000 ?
a). 999 b). 3024 c). 2064 d). 1331

9) BLOCKED : YOLXPVW : : ?
a). LANUNCH : OZFMXS B). BLIND : YORLV
C). ARREST : ZIIVHF D). BANK : YZMO

10) Son : Father : : Father : ?
a). Grand Father b). Uncle c). Step Son d). Son

11) 225 : 15 : 625 : ?
a). 35 b). 23 c). 25 d). 34
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12) 5 : V : : 13 : ?
a). M b). O c). N d). L

LOGICAL REASINOING
Number Series

13) 5, 12, 7, 8, 17, 9, 13, ?, 11
a). 24 b). 22 c). 25 d). 35

14) 2, 4, 8, 32, 256 ?
a). 8192 b). 8196 c). 8194 d). 7192

15) 123, 122, 128, 124, 133, ? 138
a). 128 b). 126 c). 136 d). 130

16) 97, 98, 100, 103, ? , 112, 118
a). 97 b). 117 c). 107 d). 109

17) 5, 14, 9, 10, 14, 4, 6, 13, 7, 8, 11, ?
a). 3 b). 4 c). 7 d). 2

18) 8, 16, 24, 7, 14, 21, 6, ?
a). 24 b). 12 c). 10 d). 18

19) 43, 34, 27, 22, 19, ?
a). 16 b). 15 c). 17 d). 18

20) 21, 28, 29, 36, 38, 45, 48, ? , ?
a). 60, 64 b). 55, 59 c). 55, 60 d). 55, 58

21) 15, 15, 30, 90, 360, ?
a). 1600 b). 1400 c). 1672 d). 1800

22) 6, 64, 8, 60, 10, 56, 12, ?
a). 62 b). 52 c). 56 d). 42

23) 1, 8, 27, 64, 125 ?
a). 226 b). 324 c). 216 d). 206

24) 1, 1, 4, 8, 9, 27, 16, 64, ??
a). 36, 216 b). 25, 256 c). 256, 512 d). 25, 125

25) 8, 2, 16, 7, 3, 21, 6, 4, 24, 5, 5, ?
a). 35 b). 25 c). 30 d). 20

26) 2, 5, 10, 17, 26, 37, ?
a). 55 b). 49 c). 60 d). 50

27) 6, 13, 18, 25, 30, 37, ?
a). 44 b). 41 c). 43 d). 42

28) 5, 15, 30, 135, 405, 1215
a). 15 b). 30 c). 135 d). 1215

29) 2, 9, 28, 65, 126, 216, 344
a). 2 b). 65 c). 126 d). 216

30) 2, 6, 24, 120, 600, 5040
a). 24 b). 120 c). 600 d). 5040

31) if 18+6 + 144; 13 + 5 + 81. What is 10 + 20 + ?
a). 225 b). 150 c). 300 d). 210

32) If 5 * 2 + 21, 7* 3 = 40 ; what is 9*7 = ?
a). 32 b). 216 c). 102 d). 63

33) If 6*3=45; 8*3 = 73. what is 8*4 =?
a). 70 b). 60 c). 80 d). 78
34) 7, 8, 20, 69, 292 ?
a). 1475 b). 1485 c). 1455 d). 1495

35) 3, 10, 29, 66, 127, ?
a). 164 b). 187 c). 218 d). 216

36) QPO, SRQ, UTS, WVU, ?
a). XVZ b). ZYA c). YXW d). VWX

37) 5, 6, 27, 160 , ?
a). 1149 b). 1120 c). 1129 d). 1169

38) 2, 3, 6, 15, 45, ?
a). 157.5 b). 135 c). 147.5 d). 160

39) 23, 69, 138, 414, 628, ?
a). 1848 b). 1948 c). 1884 d). 1984

40) 240, ? 120, 40, 10, 2
a). 480 b). 240 c). 220 d). 120

Practice and put correct answers and check with our answer key Paper-1
Answer Key
1) D 2) A 3) B 4) D 5) B 6) - 7) A 8) D 9) A 10) A
11) C 12) C 13) A 14) A 15) B 16) C 17) A 18) B 19) D 20) B
21) D 22) B 23) C 24) D 25) B 26) D 27) D 28) B 29) D 30) C
31) A 32) A 33) C 34) B 35) C 36) D 37) D 38) A 39) C 40) B

0 Bank Exam PO Question Papers

Bank Probationary Officer Recruitment Exam Model Papers                   Paper-I

(For SBI, Corporation Bank, Allahabad Bank, Bank of Baroda Exam)

Reasoning,Mental Ability,Aptitude

1. ‘Captain' is related to a ‘Team' in the same way as ‘Director' is related to
(1) Supervisor (2) Employee
(3) Organisation (4) Union
(5) Customer

2. Find the odd one out of the following options
(1) Aunt (2) Child
(3) Father (4) Niece
(5) Relation

3. Pointing to a photograph of Mahesh, Ram said. "The father of his sister is the husband of my wife's mother". How is Ram related to Mahesh?
(1) Brother (2) Brother-in-law
(3) Father-in-law (4) Data not sufficient
(5) None of these

4. If ‘fork' is called ‘plate', ‘plate' is called 'knife', ‘knife' is called ‘jug', ‘jug' is called ‘glass',‘glass' is called ‘cup' and ‘cup' is called ‘fork', by what do we cut fruit?
(1) spoon (2) jug
(3) glass (4) saucer
(5) none of these

5. If ‘a' is substituted by 26,'B' by 25 and so on up to ‘Z' which is substituted by 1, what will be the sum of the numbers substituted for the word ‘XRAY'?
(1) 33 (2) 40
(3) 37 (4) 73
(5) None of these

6. In a certain code COIMBATORE is written as DPJNCBUPSF. How is INDORE written in that code?
(1) JOENQF (2) JMCPQD
(3) JOEPSF (4) HMCNQD
(5) None of these

7. Geeta is elder to Seeta but not to Deepa. Gayatri is younger than Deepa. No one is elder to Fatima. Who is youngest of them all?
(1) Seeta (2) Geeta
(3) Gayatri (4) Data not sufficient
(5) None of these

8. Raman is sitting to the immediate left of Harry but not next to Kamal. Mahesh is sitting to the right of Kamal. If the four friends are sitting in a circle who is sitting to the immediate right of Harry?
(1) Mahesh (2) Kamal
(3) Raman (4) Harry
(5) Cannot be determined
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9. How many three letter meaningful English words can be formed from the word NOTE
beginning with ‘T' and without repeating any letter?
(1) Three (2) One
(3) Two (4) None
(5) None of these

Directions (11-15): Answer question 11 to 15 based on the following sequence:
A $ B # 9 G 3D K « M ? C Q 2 X 7 P 5 U 8 I 4 Y ə J

11. How many elements in the above arrangement are both immediately preceded and
immediately followed by a number?
(1) One (2) Two
(3) Three (4) Five
(5) None of these

12. Which of the following will be the fifteenth element from the left end if all the numbers are arranged in descending order from left to right, keeping the position of the other elements in arrangement un-changed?
(1) 5 (2) 4
(3) 7 (4) 8
(5) None of these

13. How many letters in the above arrangement are immediately followed by a symbol?
(1) Two (2) Five
(3) Four (4) Three
(5) None of these

14. Which of the following will be eighth to the left of the twelfth from the left end of the arrangement?
(1) # (2) 7
(3) U (4) 9
(5) None of these

15. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on their position in the above arrangement and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?
(1) G$M (2) K9Q
(3) ?D7 (4) 2MU
(5) PCI

16. In a certain code language' In ba pe' means ‘he has won','le ki ba' means ‘she has lost' and ‘in se pe' means ‘he always won'. Which word in that language means ‘he'?
(1) in (2) pe
(3) se (4) Data not sufficient
(5) None of these

17. X is Y's brother. S is T's mother and X's aunt. How is T related to X?
(1) Sister (2) Cousin
(3) Aunt (4) Cannot be determined
(5) None of these

18. If the letters of the word OBSERVANT are interchanged, such that the first becomes ninth,second becomes eighth, and so on, and the position of the fifth letter remains unchanged then what will be the new arrangement of letters?
(1) TNAVERSBO (2) TNVARESBO
(3) NTAVERSBO (4) VANTRESBO
(5) None of these

19. If 1 is coded as Ś, 5 is coded as %, 6 is coded as «, 3 is coded as +, 7 is coded as # and 4 is coded as ? What will be the correct form of the number 435671?
(1) ? + % « # Ś (2) ? + % Ś # «
(3) ? + « % # Ś (4) Ś # « % + ?
(5) None of these

20. Which of the following have the same relationship as BREAD:DBARE?
(1) SWORN: NSOWR (2) FUNDS: FSDUN
(3) GLAZE : EGZAL (4) LOWER: RLEWO
(5) None of these

Directions (21-25): Read the following information and attempt the given questions:
Six executive Aman, Bindu, Deepa, Jitu, Kamal and Priyanka have to advertise four products i.e.
soap, watches, computers and chocolates on 3 different channels, i.e. Go, Come and Fun either alone or in pairs. An executive can visit only one channel and advertise only one product. No more than two executives can advertise on a channel.
(i) Bindu and Jitu both visit the same channel but advertise different products.
(ii) Aman who visits ‘Go' advertises neither soap nor computers.
(iii) Kamal does not advertise chocolates.
(iv) No girl advertises soap.
(v) The two executives who advertise chocolates visit Spice

21. Who advertises watches?
(1) Deepa (2) Kamal
(3) Aman (4) Priyanka
(5) None of these

22. Which of the following Channel-product pairs in definitely incorrect?
(1) Go-watch (2) Come-computer
(3) Go-soap (4) Come-soap
(5) Come-watch

23. Which channel does Kamal visit?
(1) Go (2) Fun
(3) Come (4) Cannot be determined
(5) None of these

24. If Bipasha advertises computers which of the following must be true?
(1) Jitu advertises soap (2) Jitu advertises watches
(3) Kamal advertises computers (4) Kamal works for Fun
(5) None of these

25. What will Jitu advertise?
(1) Chocolates (2) Watches
(3) Computers or watches (4) Cannot be determined
(5) None of these

26. Swaroop and Simple want to attend a seminar together between 9 a.m. to 5 p.m. on Friday. Simple cannot leave till after her lunch break which begins at 1.30 p.m. Swaroop is free after her meeting which ends at noon. For how many hours can the two of them attend the seminar?
(1) 3 ½ hours (2) 2 ½ hours
(3) 4 ½ hours (4) Cannot be determined
(5) None of these

27. How many pairs of letters are there in the word ANSWER each of which has as many letters between them in the word as there are in the English language?
(1) One (2) Two
(3) Four (4) Three
(5) None of these

28. Find the odd one out
(1) 2 (2) 7
(3) 11 (4) 13
(5) 9

29. If all the letters in the word MERCIFUL are rearranged in alphabetical order and substituted by the alphabet preceding them in the English alphabet what will be the new arrangement of letters?
(1) BDHEKLQT (2) BDEHKLQT
(3) BDEHLKQT (4) BDEJMLQT
(5) None of these

30. Out of 38 families in a housing society 5 subscribe to Hindi news-papers alone, 12 subscribe to both Hindi and Marathi newspapers. Find the number of Maranthi news-paper subscribers.
(1) 9 (2) 21
(3) 17 (4) Cannot be determined
(5) None of these

Directions (31-35): Below are given letters and their numeric codes. Below that are given some conditions to be followed while codifying the given letter groups in each question. Study them and find out the correct numeric coded form of the given letter group in each question. If none of the coded forms is correct, your answer will be (5) i.e. ‘None of these'.
Letters M Q I N E Y U G R
Numeric Codes 2 5 3 7 1 8 4 6 9
Conditions:
(i) If the first and last letters are vowels both are to be coded as Ś.
(ii) If the second letter is a vowel and the third letter is a consonant a single code is to be used
and both are to be coded jointly as %.
(iii) If the first letter is a consonant and the last letter is a vowel both are to be coded as?

31. ENIMY
(1) 1%28 (2) ?732?
(3) 17328 (4) ?7328
(5) None of these

32. GENIR
(1) ?173? (2) 6%39
(3) 6%79 (4) 61739
(5) None of these

33. QUERI
(1) 5%93 (2) ?413?
(3) ?4139 (4) ?419?
(5) None of these

34. EINUM
(1) 1%72 (2) 0%42
(3) 1374? (4) 1%43
(5) None of these

35. UNGRE
(1) Ś769 Ś (2) 4769 Ś
(3) 47691 (4) Ś7691
(5) None of these

Directions (36-40): In each question below are two statements followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. You have to take the two given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the two statements disregarding commonly known facts.
Give answer (1) if only conclusion I follows.
Give answer (2) if only conclusion II follows.
Give answer (3) if either conclusion I or II follows.
Give answer (4) if neither conclusion I nor II follows.
Give answer (5) if both conclusions I or II follow.
36. Statements: Some pencils are lead. All lead are ink
Conclusions:
I. Some ink are pencils.
II. All ink are lead.

37. Statements: Some ovens are refrigerator. Some refrigerators are ACs.
Conclusions:
I. Some ACs are ovens.
II. No. AC is oven.

38. Statements: All planes are birds. All birds are clouds.
Conclusions:
I. Some planes are clouds.
II. Some clouds are birds.

39. Statements: Some sweets are salt. No salt in spice.
Conclusions:
I.. Some sweets are spice.
II. No spice is salt.

40. Statements: Some papers are plastics. All papers are clothes.
Conclusions:
I. Some plastics are clothes.
II. Some plastics are papers.

Directions (41-45): Each of the following questions below consists a question and two statements numbered I and II given below it. You have to decide if the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read both statements and:
Give answer (1) if the data in statements I alone is sufficient to answer the question while the data in statement II is not sufficient to answer the question.
Give answer (2) if the data in statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement I alone is not sufficient to answer the question.
Give answer (3) if the data either in statement I alone or in statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question.
Give answer (4) if the data in both the statements I and II are not sufficient to answer the question.
Give answer (5) if the data in both the statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question.

41. How is ‘cricket' written in a code language?
I. ‘Dinesh play cricket' is written as ‘do si ha'.
II. ‘play cricket now' is written as ‘ha si ma'.

42. Who is the oldest among L, M, N, O,P?
I. P is older than M and N but not O.
II. L is older than O.

43. When is Rahul's birthday?
I. Rahul and Shivani are twins.
II. Rahul was born on the last day of February in a leap year.

44. What is the strength of the class?
I. Shekhar stood 28 ranks below the top ranker and Mahesh who stood 5 ranks below him stood last.
II. Jayesh was 9 ranks below Ramesh who stood 27th from the top.

45. How far does Shruti live from the school?
I. Shruti has to cycle 3 kms. To her friend Mina's house which is 4 kms. From thee school.
II. Gitanjali lives exactly opposite the school and walks 2 kms. to reach Shruti's house.

Directions (46-50): The following questions are based on the five three digit numbers given below:
972 526 487 359 251

46. If the positions of the firs and second digits are interchanged which of the following will be third if they are arranged in ascending order?
(1) 359 (2) 972
(3) 526 (4) 487
(5) 251

47. If 2 is added to the sum of the digits of each of the above numbers how many will be multiples of 5?
(1) None (2) One
(3) Two (4) Three
(5) None of these

48. If 1 is subtracted from the last digit of each of the above numbers the sum of the digits of how many of them are prime numbers?
(1) None (2) Two
(3) One (4) Three
(5) All five

49. If the digits in each of the above numbers are written in reverse order which will be the second highest number?
(1) 251 (2) 359
(3) 487 (4) 526
(5) 972

50. If the positions of the digits of each of the numbers are interchanged such that the first becomes second, second becomes third and third becomes firs, which, of the following will be the highest?
(1) 972 (2) 526
(3) 487 (4) 251
(5) 359

Answer Key for Mental Aptitude Reasoning
1. (3) 2. (5) 3. (2) 4. (2) 5. (2)
6. (3) 7. (4) 8. (2) 9. (1) 10. (1)
11. (4) 12. (3) 13. (2) 14. (1) 15. (5)
16. (4) 17. (2) 18. (5) 19. (1) 20. (5)
21. (3) 22. (4) 23. (1) 24. (2) 25. (3)
26. (1) 27. (2) 28. (5) 29. (2) 30. (5)
31. (3) 32. (2) 33. (4) 34. (5) 35. (1)
36. (1) 37. (3) 38. (5) 39. (2) 40. (5)
41. (4) 42. (5) 43. (2) 44. (1) 45. (3)
46. (1) 47. (4) 48. (3) 49. (3) 50. (5)

5 All Banks probationary officer question paper -Computer based Questions

For SBI, Andhra Bank, BoB, Bank of India Probationary Officer's (PO) and Clerical Exam.

1. Which of the following is a part of the Central Processing Unit?
a. Printer
b. Key board
c. Mouse
d. Arithmetic & Logic unit
e. None

2. CAD stands for
a. Computer aided design
b. Computer algorithm for design
c. Computer application in design
d. All of the above
e. None

3. Which of the following printer cannot print graphics?
a. Ink-jet
b. Daisy Wheel
c. Laser
d. Dot-matrix
e. None

4. A program written in machine language is called?
a. Assembler
b. Object
c. Computer
d. Machine
e. None

5. The father of Modern Computer is
a. Charles Babbage
b. Von-nuumann
c. Danies Ritchel
d. Blaise Pascal
e. None

6. The Word FTP stands for
a. File Translate Protocol
b. File Transit Protocol
c. File Transfer protocol
d. file typing protocol
e. None

7. The lowest form of Computer language is called
a. BASIC
b. FORTRAN
c. Machine Language
d. COBOL
e. None

8. Best Quality graphics is produced by
a. Dot Matix
b. Laser Printer
c. Inkjet Printerd. Plotter
e. None

9. Memory which forgets every thing when you switch off the power is known as
a. Corrupted
b. Volatile
c. Non-Volatile
d. Non-Corrupted
e. None
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10. The linking of computers with a communication system is called
a. Networking
b. Pairing
c. Interlocking
d. Assembling
e. Sharing

11. The 16 bit Microprocessor means that it has
a. 16 address lines
b. 16 Buses
c. 16 Data lines
d. 16 routes
e. None

12. Data going into the computer is called
a. Output
b. algorithm
c. Input
d. Calculations
e. flow chart

13. Which of the following refers to a small, single-site network?
a. LAN
b. DSL
c. RAM
d. USB
e. CPU

14. Microsoft Office is
a. Shareware
b.Public domain software
c. Open-sourse software
d. A vertical market application
e. An application suite

15. How many options does a BINARY choice offer
a. None
b. One
c. Two
d. it depends on the amount of memory on the computer
e. It depends on the speed of the computer's processor

16. A collection of program that controls how your computer system runs and processes information is called
a. Operating System
b. Computer
c. Office
d. Compiler
e. Interpreter

17. Computer connected to a LAN (Local Area Network) can
a. run faster
b. go on line
c. share information and /or share peripheral equipment
d. E-mail
e. None

18. Information travels between components on the mother board through
a. Flash memory
b. CMOS
c. Bays
d. Buses
e. Peripherals

19. How are data organized in a spreadsheet?
a. Lines & spaces
b. Layers & Planes
c. Height & Width
d. Rows & Columns
e. None

20. The blinking symbol on the computer screen is called the
a. mouse
b. logo
c. hand
d. palm
e. cursor

21. A fault in a computer program which prevents it from working correctly is known as
a. Boot
b. Bug
c. Biff
d. Strap
e. None



22. A self replicating program, similar to a virus which was taken from a 1970s science fiction novel by John Bruner entitled the Shockwave Rider is _________
a. Bug
b. Vice
c. Lice
d. Worm
e. None

23. A _______ is a bi-stable electronic circuit that has two stable states.
a. Multivibrator
b. Flip-flop
c. Logic gates
d. laten
e. None

24. Unwanted repetitious messages, such as unsolicited bulk e-mail is known as
a. Spam
b. Trash
c. Calibri
d. Courier
e. None

25. DOS stands for
a. Disk Operating System
b. Disk operating session
c. Digital Operating System
d. Digital Open system
e. None

26. Who is the chief of Miocrosoft
a. Babbage
b. Bill Gates
c. Bill Clinton
d. Bush
e. None

27. Which of the following are input devices.
a. Keyboard
b. Mouse
c. Card readerd. Scanner
e. All of these

28. Examples of output devices are
a. Screen
b. Printer
c. Speaker
d. All of these
e. None

29. Which of the following is also known as brain of computer
a. Control unit
b. Central Processing unit
c. Arithmatic and language unit
d. Monitor
e. None

30. IBM stands for
a. Internal Business Management
b. International Business Management
c. International Business Machines
d. Internal Business Machines
e. None

31.___________ translates and executes program at run time line by line
a. Compiler
b. Interpreter
c. Linker
d. Loader
e. None

32. ___________ is an OOP principle
a. Structured programming
b. Procedural programming
c. Inheritance
d. Linking
e. None

33. COBOL is widely used in _________ applications
a. Commercial
b. Scientific
c. Space
d. Mathematical
e. None

34. RAM stands for
a. Random origin money
b. Random only memory
c. Read only memory
d. Random access memory
e. None

35. 1 Byte = ?
a. 8 bits
b. 4 bits
c. 2 bits
d. 9 bits
e. None

36. SMPS stands for
a. Switched mode power supplyb. Start mode power supply
c. Store mode power supply
d. Single mode power supply
e. None

37. The device used to carry digital data on analog lines is called as
a. Modem
b. Multiplexer
c. Modulator
d. Demodulator
e. None

38. VDU is also called
a. Screen
b. Monitor
c. Both 1 & 2
d. printer
e. None

39. BIOS stands for
a. Basic Input Output system
b. Binary Input output system
c. Basic Input Off system
d. all the above
e. None

40. Father of 'C' programming language
a. Dennis Ritchie
b. Prof Jhon Kemeny
c. Thomas Kurtz
d. Bill Gates
e. None

Answer Key1) d 2) a 3) b 4) a 5) a, 6) c 7) c 8) d 9) b 10) a
11) c 12) c 13) a 14) e 15) c 16) a 17) c 18) c 19) d 20) e
21) b 22) d 23) b 24) a 25) a 26) b 27) e 28) d 29) b 30) c
31) b 32) c 33) a 34) d 35) a 36) a 37) a 38) c 39) a 40) a

0 Logical Reasoning Mental Ability Model Question Papers

Useful for Public Service Commission Jobs, Staff Selection Commissions Jobs, CRPF, RRB etc.

Logical Reasoning, Letter and Symbol Series

41) 4, 6, 18, 27, 81, 121,5, ?
a). 360.5 b). 361.5 c). 362.5 d). 364.5

42) 80, 16, 4, 4/3, 2/3, ?
a). 2/3 b). 1 c). 1/3 d). 0

43) 3, 5, 9, 17, 33, ?
a). 66 b). 49 c). 65 d). 63

44) 4, 18, 48, 100, 180, 294, ?
a). 484 b). 512 c). 444 d). 448

45) 6, 13, 28, 59, ?
a). 111 b). 122 c). 113 d). 114

46) 3, 10, 29, 66, ?
a). 125 b). 127 c). 123 d). 191

47) 6, 18, 54, ?, 486, 1458
a). 108 b). 162 c). 169 d). 381

48) 82 : 122 : : ? : 226
a). 145 b). 170 c). 185 d). 216

49) ANXYBO : CPXYDQ :: ERSYFS : ?
a). GTXYHU b). GUXYHU c). GTYYXU d). GTXYDU

50) 3, 7, 15, ?, 63
a). 31 b). 42 c). 35 d). 34

51) 128, 110, 90, ? , 44
a). 56 b). 72 c). 68 d). 70

52) 7, 15, 29, 59, 117, ?
a). 233 b). 234 c). 335 d).235

53) 5, 8, 9, 14, 16, 23, 26, ?
a). 29 b). 33 c). 35 d). 39

54) 999, 727, 509, 339, ?
a). 211 b). 208 c). 125 d). 120

55) 7, 15, 28, 59, 114, ?
a). 243 b). 233 c). 213 d). 223

56) 5, 11, 23, 41, 65, ?
a). 89 b). 95 c). 101 d). 105

57) 3, 5, 8, 13, 20, ?
a). 29 b). 31 c). 33 d). 39

58) 3, 5, 5, 19, 7, 41, 9, ?
a). 71 b). 61 c). 72 d). 69

59) 3, 6, 12, 15, 30, 33, ?
a). 50 b). 60 c). 44 d). 66

60) 0, 2, 6, ?, 20, 30, 42
a). 8 b). 10 c). 12 d). 14

61) 0, 3, 8, 15, 24, 35, ?
a). 40 b). 48 c). 45 d). 50
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62) 3, 15, 39, 75, ?
a). 101 b). 123 c). 93 d). 223

63) 4, 4, 21, 68, ?
a). 355 b). 345 c). 375 d). 365

64) 12, 18, 27, 90, 270, 945, 3782
a). 12 b). 18 c). 27 d). 945

65) 16, 24, 48, 60, 144, 216
a). 48 b). 60 c). 144 d). 216

66) AZB, CYD, EXF, ?
a). GWH b). FGV c). TMR d). QSV

67) MNO, RST, WXY, BCD, ?
a). IJK b). GHI c). LMN d). TVS

68) ACE, FHJ, KNO, ?
a). TMO b). PRT c). UVX d).VTX

69) AAD, EEH, IIL, ?
a). MPP b). MMP c). QPP d). RSS

70) TZB TZF TZJ TZN TZ ?
a). S b). Q c). O d).R

71) If R = 4.5, N-3.5 then what is the value of Z=?
a). 6.75 b). 6.5 c). 6 d). 15

72) DTP=744, ATM-147 then XIN=?
a). 999 b). 989 c). 988 d). 997

73) If A=2, B=10 then R=?
a). 5840 b). 5850 c). 5814 d). 5870

74) If ‘A’ is -, ‘B’ is /, ‘C’ is +, ‘D’ is X, Then 15B3C 24A 12 D2 = ?
a). 3/4 b). 5/9 c). 5 d). 2

75) aab – aa – bbb – aaa – bbba
a). abba b). baab c). aaab d). abab

76) abb – baa – a – bab – aba
a). abba b). abab c). ccac d). aab

77) – aba – cabc – d – ba – bab – a
a). abdca b). bcadc c). abcdd d). cbdaa

78) acc – bc – a – ccbbcc
a). abab b). bcaa c). aabc d). bcab

80) cc – ccbc – accbcc – c – b
a). acac b). abac c). abab d). aabc

81) a – bbc – aab – cca – bbcc
a). bacb b). acba c). abba d). caba

82) – aba – abaa – baa – ba
a). baaa b). aaaa c). abbb d). bbbb

83) a – bc / b-bca / c – ab/a – bc/bb
a). aabc b). abca c). acba d). adbc

84) – c-bd – bacb – ca – bac – d
a). bdbcba b). daabbc c). cdbbca d). adabcd

Answer Key
41) D 42) A 43) C 44) D 45) B 46) B 47) B 48) B 49) A 50) A
51) C 52) A 53) C 54) A 55) B 56) B 57) B 58) A 59) D 60) C
61) B 62) B 63) D 64) C 65) B
66) - 67) - 68) - 69) - 70) - 71) - 72)- 73) - 74)- 75)-
76)- 77)- 78)- 79)- 80) -81) - 82)- 83) - 84)-

0 Bank Exam Model Papers For Clerks

Recently Dena Bank, Bank of Maharashtra, Punjab & Sind Bank, Bank of India and Andhra Bank released Jobs notification for Clerks. All Bank will have common format below syllabus and model paper is useful for all bank exams who are applying and seeking model papers for clerks can download below papers.

Exam Syllabus
Test of Reasoning (TR)
Test of English Language(EN)
Test of Numerical Ability (NA)
Test of General Awareness(GA)
Test of Computer Knowledge (CK)

We are providing here model paper of clerk’s exam of Andhra Bank. Candidates can download these papers and practice. These papers useful for candidates knowing exam pattern and saving time for practicing before attend exam.

Click here for Download Andhra Bank Clerks Exam Model Paper-Reasoning

0 Andhra Bank Clerks Previous Model Papers

Andhra Bank recently announced 600 Clerks jobs. Exam pattern is Test of Reasoning (TR)
Test of English Language(EN)
Test of Numerical Ability (NA)
Test of General Awareness(GA)
Test of Computer Knowledge (CK)

We are providing here model paper of clerk’s exam of Andhra Bank. Candidates can download these papers and practice. These papers useful for candidates knowing exam pattern and saving time for practicing before attend exam.

Click here for Download Andhra Bank Clerks Exam Model Paper-English

0 RRB Junior Engineer Model Question Papers - Numerical Aptitude

1) Minimum number that should be added to 23087 to make it completely divisible by 8 is ......
(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4
Ans:- A

2) The angles ABC are 5x0, 7x0 and 6x0 respectively. What is the measure of the Õ BCA?
(a) 500 (b) 600 (c) 700 (d) cannot decide
Ans:- C

3) 390× 1000 × 201 × 34 = ?
(a) 895 (b) 1540 (c) 1620 (d) 1780
Ans:- C

4) 2100 ¸ 84 = √?
(a) 25 (b) 35 (c) 1225 (d) 625
Ans:- D

5) Ratio of costs of a table and a chair is 5:3 . If the tables cost Rs. 500 more
than the cost of chair's, what is the chair's cost?
(a) Rs. 1250 (b) Rs. 1750 (c) Rs. 1450 (d) Rs. 750
Ans:- D

6) 1646 − 13 × 18 + 249 = ? + 875
(a) 786 (b) 687 (c) 2486 (d) 2356
Ans:- A

7) A number when divided by 5 leaves the remainder 3. What is the remainder when the square of the same number is divided by 5?
(A) 9 (b) 3 (c) 0 (d) 4
Ans:- D

8) 12% 650 + ? % of 400 = 110
(a) 25 (b) 18 (c) 8 (d) 80%
Ans:- C

9) A train 'A' crosses a 160 m standing train 'B' in 15 sec and a standing person in 9 sec. What is its speed?
(a) 96 km/hr (b) 72 km/hr ( c) 84 km/hr (d) 92 km/hr
Ans:- A

10) The type of matrix
√2 0 0
0 √3 0
0 0 √2
is?
(a) Scalar (b) Unit (c) Diagonal (d) Transpose
Ans:- C

11) The value of log 10000 is
(a) 4 (b) 8 (c) 5 (d) 6
Ans:- A

12) The sum of all numbers between 800 and 1100 which are divisible by 79 is
(a) 2846 (b) 2844 (c) 3844 (d) 3584
Ans:- B

13) The difference between the squares of any two consecutive integers is equal to
(a) Product of two numbers (b) Sum of two numbers
(c) Difference of two numbers (d) An even number
Ans:- B

14) 74 is divided into two parts so that 5 times one part and 11 times the others part are together equal to 454. Then the parts are
(a) 14,60 (b) 60,14 (c) 30,44 (d) 20,34
Ans:- B

15) If 4 workers can make 42 toys in 6 days, how many toys can 12 workers make in 3 days?
(a) 63 (b) 28 (c) 252 (d) 7
Ans:- A

16) The price of 349 coconuts are Rs 2094. What will be the price of 26 dozens of coconuts?
(a) Rs 1662 (b) Rs 1562 (c) Rs 2062 (d) Rs 1872
Ans:- D

17) The area of a rectangular field is 10 times of its length. If the breadth of the field is 10m, what is its length?
(a) 40m (b) 25m (c) 20m (d) data inadequate
Ans:- D

18) The salary of an employee was reduced by 40% first and then was increased by 50%. How much percent did he lose?
(a) 15% (b) 20% (c) 10% (d) 12%
Ans:- C

19) If 9 men & 15 women can do a piece of work in 25 days, then 39 men and 10 women will complete the same work in
(a) 7 days (b) 6 days (c) 5 days (d) 4 days
Ans:- C

20) One person took a loan of Rs. 5000 for 3 yrs on simple interest. After three years he paid back Rs. 6200 including the principal and the interest accrued. Calculate the rate of interest.
(a) 6% (b) 7% (c) 8% (d) 7.5%
Ans:- C

21) The smallest number which when added to the number 1154 makes it a perfect square is
(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4
Ans:- B

22) The present age of Ramesh is ¼ of his father's age. After 4 years, the sum of their ages will be 68. What is the present age of Ramesh?
(a) 10 yrs (b) 15 yrs (c) 16 yrs (d) 12 yrs
Ans:- B

23) Sheet metal required to make a hollow cone of height 24 cm and radius 7 cm is
(a) 407 cm2 (b) 250 cm2 (c) 704 cm2 (d) 400 cm2
Ans:- C

24) If 42 men can do a work in 15 days, how many men are required to complete it in 21 days?
(a) 24 (b) 36 (c) 30 (d) none of these
Ans:- A

25) Average marks in Maths in a class of 40 students is 45. Average of all the 30 boys is 50. Then the average marks obtained by the girls is
(a) 30 (b) 35 (c) 25 (d) none of these
Ans:- A

26) The largest angle of a quadrilateral is two times the smallest angle. If the angles form a series (a, a+d, a+2d, a+3d), the other two angles would be
(a) 600, 1200 (b) 800, 1000 (c) 900, 1000 (d) 700, 900
Ans:- B

27) A mixture of 20 kg of spirit and water contains 10% water. How much water must be added to this mixture to raise the percentage of water to 25%
(a) 4 kg (b) 5 kg (c) 8 kg (d) 30 kg
Ans:- A

28) A shopkeeper bought locks at the rate of 8 locks for Rs. 34 and sold them at 12 locks for Rs. 57. The number of locks he should sell to have a profit of Rs. 900 is
(a) 1400 (b) 1600 (c) 1800 (d) 2000
Ans:- C

29) A person travels equal distance with speed of 3 km/hr; 4 km/hr and 5 km/hr. and takes a total time of 47 minutes. The total distance (in km) is
(a) 1 (b) 3 (c) 4 (d) 5
Ans:- A

30) The perimeter of a circular and another square field are equal. Find the area in sq.m of the circular field if the area of the square field is 484 sq.m.
(a) 888 (b) 770 (c) 616 (d) None of these
Ans:- C

31) If the compound interest on a certain sum for 2 yrs at 10% annum is Rs. 2100, the simple interest on it at the same rate for 2 yrs will be.
(a) Rs. 1700 (b) Rs. 1800 (c) Rs. 1900 (d) Rs. 2000
Ans:- D

32) The diagonal of a square A is x + y. The diagonal of a square 'B' with twice the area of A is
(a) 2(x + y) (b) x + 2y (c) √2 (x + y) (d) 2x + 4y
Ans:- C

33) If 10x+3y : 5n+2y = 9:5, then x : y is
(a) 3:5 (b) 5:3 (c) 2:5 (d) 1:2
Ans:- A

34) Free International CallsSMS & Call Friends for Free across the World. Call Now! Safe Feed Of My BabyFor Safe Feeding And Healthy Baby, visit.Your Ad HereA conical tent of radius 12m and height 16m is to be made. Find its cost if canvas is Rs. 10 per m2
(a) Rs 7543 (b) Rs 7445 (c) Rs 7342 (d) 7600
Ans:- A

35) 1, 5, 14, 30, ?, 91
(a) 45 (b) 55 (c) 46 (d) 60
Ans:- B

36) 1, 2, 4, 6, 7, 10, 10, ?, 13
(a) 7 (b) 11 (c) 14 (d) 12
Ans:- C

37) 2, 6, 30, 60, 130, ?
(a) 210 (b) 216 (c) 200 (d) 160
Ans:- A

0 RRB Kolkata Ticket Collector Model Paper Download

1) Who is considered the real founder of the Gupta Empire?
(a) Chandragupta II (b) Chandragupta I (c) Samudragupta (d) Srigupta

2) Shahjahan ascended the Mughal throne in
(a) 1628 AD (b) 1626 AD (c) 1625 AD (d) 1627 AD

3) Which is correct order?
(a) Babur, Humayun, Jahangir, Akbar, Shahjahan, Aurangzeb
(b) Babur, Humayun, Akbar, Jahangir, Shahjahan, Aurangzeb
(c) Babur, Akbar, Humayun, Shahjahan, Jahangir, Aurangzeb
(d) Babur, Humayun, Shahjahan, Akbar, Jahangir, Aurangzeb

4) Ibn Batutah visited India during the rule of
(a) Alauddin Khilji (b) Ghiyasuddin Tughlaq
(c) Sher Shah Suri (d) Muhammad-bin-Tughlaq

5) Who was the Nawab of Bengal during ‘Battle of Plassey’?
(a) Siraj-ud-daola (b) Mir Jafar (c) Mir Qasim (d) None of these

6) FIFA World Cup, 2006 was played in
(a) Germany (b) France (c) Spain (d) UK

7) Munaf Patel plays which sport?
(a) Badminton (b) Football (c) Cricket (d) Table-Tennis

8) The first Asian lady swimmer to have crossed the English Channel was
(a) Bula Choudhury (b) Arati Saha
(c) Nilima Ghosh (d) None of these

9) Which country has never won the Cricket World Cup?
(a) India (b) Pakistan (c) Sri-Lanka (d) England

10) Which cricket playing countries fight for the ‘ASHES’?
(a) Indian and Pakistan (b) Australia and South Africa
(c) Australia and England (d) England and West Indies

11) Who was the first Law Minister of independent India?
(a) Jawaharlal Nehru (b) Vallabhbhai Patel
(c) Maulana Abul Kalam Azad (d) Dr) B)R)Ambedkar

12) Who was the first speaker of the Lok-Sabha?
(a) B)R)Ambedkar (b) G)V)Mavlankar
(c) N)Sanjeeva Reddy (d) Dr) S)P)Mukherjee

13) How many states (except Delhi) are there in India?
(a) 28 (b) 29 (c) 25 (d) 30

14) Which country won the first World Cup Cricket?
(a) Australia (b) India (c) England (d) West Indies

15) Who was the woman President of the United Nations?
(a) Sarojini Naidu (b) Vijaya Lakshmi Pandit
(c) Golda Mayer (d) Margaret Thatcher

16) Who was the first man to land on moon?
(a) Neil Armstrong (b) Edwin (c) Gagarin (d) John Collins

17) One inch is equal to how many centimeters?
(a) 2)54 (b) 2)84 (c) 2)94 (d) 3)0

18) Bronze is an alloy of copper and
(a) Nickel (b) Tin (c) Zinc (d) Aluminium

19) Minus 40 degree centigrade is equal to _____ degree Fahrenheit)
(a) 104 (b) 122 (c) -40 (d) None of these

20) What is the value of XC (Roman Number)?
(a) 100 (b) 40 (c) 110 (d) 90
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21) The person of which of the following blood groups can accept the blood of any group?
(a) AB (b) O (c) A (d) B

22) Mountain K2 is known as
(a) Everest (b) Nanga Parbat (c) Godwin (d) Austen

23) Lucknow is situated on the banks of river
(a) Yamuna (b) Tapti (c) Shipra (d) Gomti

24) Who won the Golden Ball Award during FIFA World Cup 2006?
(a) Ronaldo (b) Klose (c) Ronaldinho (d) Zidane

25) Who is the Chief Minister of Goa?
(a) K C Singhdeo (b) Nandini Satyaji
(c) Shivinder Singh Sidhu (d) Rameshwar Thakur

26) Who is the Finance Minister of India?
(a) Manmohan Singh (b) P Chidambaram
(c) Murasoli Maran (d) Pranab Mukherjee

27) Where is the headquarters of South-East Central Railway located?
(a) Bilaspur (b) Jabalpur (c) Bhopal (d) Raipur

28) Which of the following places in India receives maximum precipitation?
(a) Itanagar (b) Mawsynram
(c) Cherrapunjee (d) Tezpur

29) Who is the present Indian Cricket coach?
(a) Lal Chand Rajput (b) Greg Chappel
(c) Gary Kirsten (d) Madan Lal

ANSWERS:

1. (a) 2. (a) 3. (b) 4. (d) 5. (a) 6. (a) 7. (c) 8. (b) 9. (d) 10. (c) 11. (d) 12. (b) 13. (a) 14. (d) 15. (b) 16. (a) 17. (a) 18. (b) 19. (c) 20. (d) 21. (a) 22. (c) 23. (d) 24. (b) 25. (c) 26. (b) 27. (a) 28. (b) 29. (c)

0 Dena Bank Exam Previous Question Papers

Directions: In each of the following questions, there is a group of letters or words given. Four of the five are alike in a certain way, while one is different. Find out the one which is different.

1. (1) black (2) red (3) green (4) yellow (5) paint
Of the five, ‘black’, ‘red’, ‘green’, and ‘yellow’ form a group as they are names of colours. ‘Paint’ is not the name of a color. Therefore (5) is the answer.

2. (1) XZ (2) MN (3) PQ (4) BC (5) ST
Following are the questions based on analogy.

3. “Foot” is related to “Man” in the same way as “Hoof” is related to –––––
(1) Leg (2) Horse (3) Dog (4) Boy (5) Shoe

In the above example, with which one of the five, “Hoof” has the same relationship as “Foot” has to “Man” ? The answer is “Horse”, which is answer number (2).

4. “Day” is related to “Night” in the same way as
“Kind” is related to –––––
(1) Cruel (2) Bright (3) Dark
(4) Generous (5) Gratitude

Now try the following questions.

5. If the letters in the word TOPS can be rearranged to form a meaningful word beginning with O, the
last letter of that word is your answer. If more than one such word can be formed, M is the answer and
if no such word can be formed, X is the answer.
(1) T (2) P (3) M (4) S (5) X

TEST II: NUMERICAL ABILITY

This Test is to measure how fast and accurate you are in dealing with numbers.
20. 42 + 73 + 137 = ?
(1) 352 (2) 252 (3) 242 (4) 142 (5) None of these

21. 20 × ½ =?
(1) 4 (2) 5 (3) 12 (4) 20 (5) None of these

The correct answer for 21st question is 10. But none of the 1, 2, 3, or 4 shows this answer. Therefore your answer is 5.

Some of the questions may require arithmetical reasoning.
For example:

22. At 10 paise each, how many paise will 6 lemons cost ?
(1) 6 (2) 10 (3) 60 (4) 61 (5) 610

23. Which of the following can be exact multiple of 4 ?
(1) 27114 (2) 58204 (3) 48402 4) 32286 (5) None of these

24. If the profit made by selling a pen for Rs.10 is as much as its cost, what is the cost price of the pen ?
(1) Rs.3/- (2) Rs.5/- (3) Rs.10/- (4) Rs.20/- (5) None of these

In the second type of questions, some items of family expenditure are given. The item in each questions is to be classified into one of the following five. Heads of expenditure: (1) Education (2) Food (3) Health (4) Travel (5) Miscellaneous. The number preceding the Head of expenditure 1 or 2 or 3 or 4 or 5, as the case may be, is the answer.

Sample question:
28. Purchase of Rice
Since this item falls under the Head of expenditure “Food”
the answer is “2”.

In the third type of questions, five words or names are given. You have to find out which word or name will be in the middle after the words or names are rearranged in alphabetical order.
Example:
29. (1) might (2) minister (3) mice (4) mill (5) mince
The alphabetical order will be mice, might, mill mince, minister. In this order “mill” is in the middle. So the answer is “4”.

Test IV : ENGLISH LANGUAGE
This is a test to see how well you ‘know’ English. Your English language ability would be tested through questions on grammar, vocabulary, sentence completion, synonyms, antonyms, comprehension of a passage, etc. Study and answer the sample questions given below. Please remember, in the test paper there may be questions of several other types also:
Direction: Pick out the most appropriate word from amongst the words given below each sentence to complete
it meaningfully.

30. He quickly glanced .............................. the book to find what it said about the Indian economy.
(1) at (2) through (3) in (4) to (5) over
31. The counsel urged the court to ........................... down the obnoxious law.
(1) enact (2) enforce (3) cancel (4) strike (5) declare
32. The local official ........................... the Minister of the situation.
(1) explained (2) warned (3) apprised (4) told (5) intimated

Directions: Read each sentence given below to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The
error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The number of that part of the sentence is your
answer. If there is no error, the answer is ‘5’.
(Ignore errors of punctuations, if any)

33. I am twenty / two years old / when I first / joined the bank. No error
(1) (2) (3) (4) (5)
34. To the Hindus / the Ganga is / holier than / any other river. No error
(1) (2) (3) (4) (5)

35. Of all the teachers / in our school / our class teacher / were very strict. No error
(1) (2) (3) (4) (5)

Directions : In each of the following questions select from amongst the five alternatives, the word nearest in
meaning to the word given in capitals.

36. CENTENARY
(1) a guard (2) a hundred years (3) a very old man (4) hundred runs (5) hundredth anniversary

37. TRIUMPH
(1) conquer (2) smash (3) earn (4) brave (5) capture

Directions : In each of the following questions, select from amongst the five alternatives, the word most opposite in meaning of the word given in capitals.

38. LIVELY
(1) simple (2) weak (3) dull (4) angry (5) moron
39. INADVERTENT
(1) adequate (2) available (3) sluggish (4) negligent (5) intentional

0 Dena Bank Clerk Exam Model Paper – Mental Ability

Dena Bank Clerk Exam Model Paper – Mental Ability

Dena Bank Clerk Exam Model Paper – Mental Ability

1. The largest continent is:
a). South Africa b).Europe c). Africa d).asia

2. Which pass was opened between India and China for trade?
a). Nathula b).Khardungla c). chumbi d).solang

3. If Drowsy is written as HVSAWC, BEAUTY will be written as:
a).FIEYXC b).EHDXWC c). GJFZYD d).KFBVUC

4. The highest railway line has been opened in July 2006 in which country?
a). India b).Mongolia c). China d).Russia

5. 7, 7.14, 42, 168?
a). 840 b).672 c). 504 d).336

6. What is earlier name of the present ‘National Library of Kolkata”?
a). Imperial Library b).British Library c). Royal library d).Albert Library

7. The cube root of 1331 is:
a). 11 b).13 c). 19 d).17

8. At which inclination earth rotates about its axis:
a). 23 ½ b).22 ½ c). 21 ½ d).20

9. Jagan went to another town covering 240km by car moving at 60kmph. Then he covered 400km by train moving at 100kmph and then rest 200km he covered by a bus moving at 50kmph. The average speed during the whole journey is:
a).80kmph b).70kmph c).75kmph d).72kmph

10. The area of a triangle is equal to the area of a square whose each side is 60mtrs. The height of the triangle is 90mtrs. The base of the triangle will be
a). 75m b).85m c).65m d).80m

11. A horse is tied at the corner of a rectangular field, whose length is 20m and width is 16m with a rope whose length is 14m. Find the area which the horse can graze?
a).156 sq.m b).154 sq.m c). 164 sq.m d).144 sq.m

12. The capital of Mauritius:
a).Port Louis b).Male c). Suva d).Kabul

13. Pedal: Cycling: Oar: ?
a).Gliding b).Sufing c). Skating d).Rowing

15. Sam and Rita was sitting in apark in the evening looking at the sunset to the horizon. What is the direction of their hand side?
a).East b).West c).North d).South

14. The highest total runs scored by a team in an ODI cricket match is:
a). 438 b).443 c). 326 d).400

15. A Shopkeeper buys 144eggs at 90paise each. In the way 20eggs were broken. He sold the remaining eggs at Rs. 1.20 each. The percentage gain or loss is:
a). 14.8% gain b).12.9% gain c). 8.5%gain d).4.8%gain

16. In 1858 the first train from Howrah tan to
a). Hooghly b).Bardhaman c). Bandel d).Chinsura

17. Who was the prime minister of Britain when India got Independence?
a).Winston Churchil b).Clement Atlee c). wilson d).None of these

18. The ball used in which of the games is usually oval in shape:
a). Rugby b).Golf c). Polo d).Volleyball

19. It takes 40men eight days to earn Rs.2000. How many men will earn Rs.200 in two days?
a). 10 b).14 c). 16 d).20

20. A pipe of 2inch diameter fills the water tank in one hour. If the diamenter of the pipe is 4 inch in what time will the pipe fill the same tank:
a). 10min b). 15min c). 30min d). 45min

21. If the arithmetic mean of six numbers is 4.5, what is the total sum of these numbers?
a). 25 b).27 c). 64 d). Cannot be estimated

0 Union Bank of India Previous Papers of Probationary Officers Exam 2008

Union Bank of India Previous Papers of Probationary Officers Exam 2008

Reasoning: Solved Paper Held on 7-9-2008.

1. How many such pairs of letters are there in the word GUARDIAN each of which has as many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabet ?
(A. None
(B. One
(C. Two
(D. Three
(E. More than three

2. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the Onethat does not belong to that group?
(A. 19
(B. 17
(C. 23
(D. 29
(E. 27

3. How many meaningful English words can be made with the letters TEBI using each letter only once in each word ?
(A. None
(B. One
(C. Two
(D. Three
(E. More than three

4. In a certain code LONG is written as 5123 and GEAR is written as 3748. How is LANE written in that code ?
(A. 5427
(B. 5247
(C. 5847
(D. 5237
(E. None of these

5. 'BD' is related to 'EG' and 'MO' is related to 'PR' in the same way as 'FH' is related to ……….
(A. JM
(B. IL
(C. JL
(D. IK
(E. None of these

6. How many such digits are there in the number 58674139 each of which is as far away from the beginning of the number as when the digits within the number are rearranged in descending order ?
(A. None
(B. One
(C. Two
(D. Three
(E. More than three

7. In a certain code BREAKDOWN is written as BFSCJMVNC. How is ORGANISED written in that code ?
(A. PSHBMCDRH
(B. BHSPMCDRH
(C. BHSPOCDRH
(D. BHSPNHRDC
(E. None of these

8. In a certain code language 'pik da pa' means 'where are you'; 'da na ja' means 'you may come' and 'na ka sa' means 'he may go', which of the following means 'come' in that code language ?
(A. da
(B. ja
(C. na
(D. Cannot be determined
(E. None of these

9. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group ?
(A. Copper
(B. Iron
(C. Aluminium
(D. Zinc
(E. Steel

10. What should come next in the following number series ?
9 8 9 8 7 9 8 7 6 9 8 7 6 5 9 8 7 6 5 4 9 8 7 6 5
(A. 3
(B. 4
(C. 2
(D. 1
(E. None of these

11. Which of the following is the middle digit of the second highest among the following five numbers ?
254 319 963 842 697
(A. 5
(B. 1
(C. 6
(D. 4
(E. 9

12. Meeta correctly remembers that her father's birthday is after 8th July but before 12th July. Her brother correctly remembers that their father's birthday is after 10th July but before 15th July. On which day of July was definitely their father's birthday ?
(A. 10th
(B. 11th
(C. 10th or 11th
(D. Cannot be determined
(E. None of these

13. In a class of 50 students M is eighth from top. H is 20th from bottom. How many students are there between M and H ?
(A. 22
(B. 23
(C. 24
(D. Cannot be determined
(E. None of these

14. Among A, B, C, D and F each scoring different marks in the annual examination, D scored less than only F among them. B scored more than A and C but less than D. Who among them scored least marks among them ?
(A. A
(B. C
(C. B
(D. Data inadequate
(E. None of these
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15. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group ?
(A. B D F
(B. V X Z
(C. F I K
(D. M O Q
(E. L N P

Directions—(Q. 16-22. In each question below are three statements followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. You have to take the three given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the three statements disregarding commonly known facts. Give answers :
(A. If only conclusion I follows.
(B. If only conclusion II follows.
(C. If either conclusion I or II follows.
(D. If neither conclusion I nor II follows.
(E. If both conclusions I and II follow.

16. Statements :
Some desks are tents.
Some tents are rivers.
All rivers are ponds.
Conclusions :
I. Some ponds are tents.
II. Some ponds are desks.

17. Statements :
All chair are pens.
Some pens are knives.
All knives are rats.
Conclusions :
I. Some rats are chairs.
II. Some rats are pens.

18. Statements :
Some forests are huts.
Some huts are walls.
Some walls are nets.
Conclusions :
I. Some nets are forests.
II. Some nets are huts.

19. Statements :
All tables are windows.
All windows are rooms.
All rooms are buses.
Conclusions :
I. Some buses are tables.
II. Some rooms are tables.

20. Statements:
Some trees are boxes.
All boxes are bricks.
All bricks are dogs.
Conclusions:
I. Some dogs are trees.
II. Some bricks are trees.

21. Statements:
All goats are flowers.
No flower is branch.
Some branches are roots.
Conclusions:
I. Some roots are goats.
II. No root is goat.

22. Statements:
All pots are rings.
All bangles are rings.
All rings are paints.
Conclusions:
I. Some paints are pots.
II. Some bangles are paints.

Directions—(Q. 23-29. Study the following arrangement carefully and answer the
Questions given below— B# AR 5 8 E%M F4 J 1 U@ H2 © 9 T I6 * W 3 P # K7 $ Y

23. Which of the following is the twelfth to the left of the twentieth from the left end of the above arrangement ?
(A. %
(B. W
(C. $
(D. J
(E. None of these

24. How many such numbers are there in the above arrangement each of which is immediately preceded by a consonant and also immediately followed by a symbol ?
(A. None
(B. One
(C. Two
(D. Three
(E. More than three

25. How many such symbols are there in the above arrangement each of which is immediately preceded by a letter and also immediately followed by a number ?
(A. None
(B. One
(C. Two
(D. Three
(E. More than three

26. How many such consonants are there in the above arrangement each of which is immediately preceded by a consonant and also immediately followed by a number ?
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(A. None
(B. One
(C. Two
(D. Three
(E. More than three

27. If all the numbers in the above arrangement are dropped, which of the following will be the eleventh from the right end ?
(A. U
(B. T
(C. F
(D. H
(E. None of these

28. How many such vowels are there in the above arrangement each of which is either immediately preceded by a symbol or immediately followed by a symbol or both ?
(A. None
(B. One
(C. Two
(D. Three
(E. Four

29. Four of the following are alike in a certain way based on their positions in the above arrangement and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group ?
(A. 1 @ 4
(B. © T H
(C. W P 6
(D. # 7 3
(E. 9 2 I

Directions (Q. 30–36.—In each question below is given a group of digits/symbols followed by four combinations of letters lettered (A., (B., (C. and (D.. You have to find out which of the combinations correctly represents the group of digits/symbols based on the following letter coding system and mark the letter of that combination as the answer. If none of the letter combinations correctly represents the group of digits/ symbols,
Mark (E. i.e. 'None of these' as the answer.
Digit/Symbol : 4 %3 9 $ 1 8 @ © 2 # 5 6 * 7 d
Letter Code : P M IT R QJ FHAE UNBG L
Conditions :
(i. If the first element in the group is a symbol and the last element is a digit, the codes
are to be interchanged.
(ii. If the first element in the group is a digit and the last element is a symbol both are to
be coded as the code for the digit.
(iii. If both the first and the last elements are even digits both are to be coded as 'X'.
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(iv. If both the first and the last elements are odd digits, both are to be coded as 'Y'.

30. 4%@93*
(A. PMFTIB
(B. PMFTIP
(C. BMFTIB
(D. XMFTIX
(E. None of these

31. $1896©
(A. RQJTNH
(B. HQJTNR
(C. RQJTNR
(D. YQJTNY
(E. None of these

32. 2*#836
(A. YBEJIY
(B. ABEJIN
(C. NBEJIA
(D. XBEJIX
(E. None of these

33. 8732@9
(A. TGIAFJ
(B. YGIAFY
(C. JGIAFT
(D. XGIAFX
(E. None of these

34. 7#$%35
(A. GERMIU
(B. UERMIG
(C. GERMIG
(D. XERMIX
(E. None of these

35. 931%©d
(A. TIQMHL
(B. LIQMHT
(C. LIQMHL
(D. TIQMHT
(E. None of these

36. 46*389
(A. PNBIJT
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(B. XNBIJX
(C. TNBIJP
(D. PNBIJP
(E. None of these

Directions—(Q. 37–43. In the following questions, the symbols @, ©, %, $ and d are
used with the following meanings illustrated.
'P % Q' means 'P is greater than Q'.
'P d Q' means 'P is neither greater than nor smaller than Q'.
'P @ Q' means 'P is smaller than Q'.
'P © Q' means 'P is either smaller than or equal to Q'.
'P $ Q' means 'P is either greater than or equal to Q'.
In each of the following questions assuming the given statements to be true, find out which of the two conclusions I and II given below them is/are definitely true. Give
Answers:
(A. If only conclusion I is true.
(B. If only conclusion II is true.
(C. If either conclusion I or conclusion II is true.
(D. If neither conclusion I nor conclusion II is true.
(E. If both conclusions I and II are true.

37. Statements: M @ J, J © R, R d K
Conclusions: I. K d J II. K % J

38. Statements: N $ T, T d H, N @ W
Conclusions: I. W % T II. H © N

39. Statements: F @ R, R © V, V $ T
Conclusions: I. V % F II. F @ T

40. Statements: W © D, D $ B, B @ H
Conclusions : I. H % D II. W @ B

41. Statements : F d T, T $ M, M © R
Conclusions : I. R $ F
II. M © F

42. Statements : H $ N, N % R, R @ J
Conclusions : I. R @ H II. J % H
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43. Statements : V % B, B $ D, D © E
Conclusions : I. E d B II. D @ V

Directions—(Q. 44–49. Study the following information and answer the questions given
below— M, N, P, R, T, W, F and H are sitting around a circle facing at the centre. P is third to the left of M and second to the right of T. N is second to the right of P. R is second to the right of W who is second to the right of M. F is not an immediate neighbour of P.

44. Who is to the immediate right of P ?
(A. H
(B. F
(C. R
(D. Data inadequate
(E. None of these

45. Who is to the immediate right of H ?
(A. R
(B. F
(C. M
(D. Data inadequate
(E. None of these

46. Who is to the immediate left of R?
(A. P
(B. H
(C. W
(D. T
(E. Data inadequate

47. Who is third to the right of H ?
(A. T
(B. W
(C. R
(D. F
(E. Data inadequate

48. Who is second to the right of F ?
(A. M
(B. R
(C. T
(D. Data inadequate
(E. None of these

49. In which of the following is the first person sitting in between the second and the third person ?
(A. NHM
(B. PHN
(C. TRP
(D. TWF
(E. None of these
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Directions—(Q. 50–55. In each of the following questions, two rows of numbers are
given. The resultant number in each row is to be worked out separately based on the
following rules and the questions below the rows of numbers are to be answered. The
operations of numbers progress from the left to the right. Rules :
(i. If an odd number is followed by another composite odd number, they are to be added.
(ii. If an even number is followed by an odd number they are to be added.
(iii. If an even number is followed by a number which is the perfect square, the even number is to be subtracted from the perfect square.
(iv. If an odd number is followed by a prime odd number, the first number is to be
divided by the second number.
(v. If an odd number is followed by an even number the second one is to be subtracted from the first number.

50. 15 8 21 p 3 27
If 'p' is the resultant of the first row, what will be the resultant of the second row ?
(A. 58
(B. 76
(C. 27
(D. 82
(E. None of these

51. 12 64 17 20 m 16
If 'm' is the resultant of the first row, what will be the resultant of the second row ?
(A. 69
(B. 85
(C. 101
(D. 121
(E. None of these

52. 85 17 35 16 19 r
If 'r' is the resultant of the first row, what will be the resultant of the second row ?
(A. 175
(B. – 5
(C. 75
(D. 210
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E. None of these

53. 24 15 3 d 6 15
If 'd' is the resultant of the first row, what will be the resultant of the second row ?
(A. 37
(B. 8
(C. 22
(D. 29
(E. None of these

54. 28 49 15 h 3 12
If 'h' is the resultant of the first row, what will be the resultant of the second row ?
(A. 13
(B. 15
(C. 19
(D. 27
(E. None of these

55. 36 15 3 12 3 n
If 'n' is the resultant of the first row, what will be the resultant of the second row ?
(A. 15 / 17
(B. 32
(C. 12 / 17
(D. 36
(E. None of these

Directions—(Q. 56–60. Below in each question are given two statements I and II. These statements may be either independent causes or may be effects of independent causes or a common cause. One of these statements may be the effect of the other statement. Read both the statements and decide which of the following answer choice correctly depicts the relationship between these two statements. Mark answers :
(A. If statement I is the cause and statement II is its effect
(B. If statement II is the cause and statement I is effect
(C. If both the statements I and II are independent causes
(D. If both the statements I and II are effects of independent causes
(E. If both the statements I and II are effects of some common cause.

56. I. This year, the cut off percentage for admission to junior colleges have increased over the last year.
II. This year performance of students in Xth final exam was considerably higher than the previous year.

57. I. The conditions of most of the national highways are very bad
II. Govt has now sanctioned a huge amount of money to maintain the national highways

58. I. Many students of the local school have failed in English Language paper in the annual examination
II. Many students of the local school have failed in Mathematics paper in the annual examination

59. I. Rain and thunder showers bashed the city during the past three days
II. Many people stayed indoor during the past three days

60. I. There has been a considerable increase in the sale of fat free food articles
II. Now people have become more conscious about their health condition and food habits.

Directions—(Q. 61-75. In each of the questions given below which one of the five
answer figures on the right should come after the problem figures on the left, if the sequence were continued ?

Answers with Hints
1. (D.
2. (E. All the rest are prime numbers
3. (B. B I T E
4. (A. 5. (D. 6. (C. 7. (B. 8. (B.
9. (E. All the rest are pure metals
10. (B. 98 987 9876 98765 987654 987654
11. (D. 963, 84 2, 697, 319, 254
12. (B. 13. (A. 14. (D. 15. (C.
16. (A. 17. (B. 18. (D. 19. (E.
20. (E. 21. (C. 22. (A.
23. (A. 20th from the left end is T and 12th to the left of T is %
24. (C. H 2 © and K 7 $
25. (A.
26. (B. M F 4
27. (D. After dropping all the numbers
B# AR E %M FJ U@H © T I* W P # K$ Y
11th from the right end is H.
28. (D. # A, E % and U @
29. (E. 30. (B. 31. (A. 32. (D. 33. (C. 34. (E.
35. (D. 36. (A. 37. (C. 38. (E. 39. (A.
40. (D. 41. (B.
42. (A. 43. (B. 44. (A. 45. (E. 46. (D. 47. (D. 48. (C.
49. (A. 50. (A. 51. (E. 52. (B. 53. (C. 54. (D. 55. (A.
56. (D. 57. (A. 58. (E. 59. (A. 60. (B.

61. (B. In each subsequent figure one time the three designs remain same and next time after shifting one side anticlockwise direction then it remain same position. Inside shaded part of the designs form after rotating 90° anticlockwise in the two designs and forms after rotating 90° clockwise in a simple square design with this also.

62. (D. In each subsequent figure the outside bigger design '<' forms after rotating 45°and 90° anticlockwise respectively and the inside smaller design '^' forms after rotating 90° and 180° anticlockwise respectively.

63. (E.

64. (A. In each subsequent figure the curved lines on upper side straight horizontal line increase in sequence of 2, 3, 1 respectively from left to right and from upper side to lower side and one curved line is missing from back side each time. The curved lines on lower side straight horizontal line increase in sequence of 3, 4, 2 respectively from left to right and from upper side to lower side and is also missing 1 and 2 respectively from back side.

65. (C. In each subsequent figure the designs shift half side anticlockwise first and then one side anticlockwise respectively and a new design forms one by one from back side each time then forward side respectively.

66. (E. In each subsequent figure one design forms on upper left side corner first and then this design shifts half side, one side and, one and half side clockwise respectively. These designs rotate 90° clockwise each time with this change also

67. (B.

68. (A. In each subsequent figure the curved lines on the upper and lower side horizontal lines reverse in sequence one and three in clockwise direction from upper left respectively.

69. (B. In each subsequent figure the outside half circle forms inside after reversing and shifting one side anticlockwise and then it forms outside after reversing on the same side So these sequences continue respectively. The second design square forms once on next side anticlockwise after reversing from outside to inside

70. (E.

71. (A.

72. (C. In each subsequent figure increase in the number of triangles from upper left corner beome on the basis of increasing of lines three, four, five, six and seven lines respectively

73. (B.

74. (E. In each subsequent figure the circles form on the place of two-two stars from upper left corner. These small circles form on the place of existing stars in the next two lines after forming upto lower left as 4, 5, 6, 7 and 8 respectively and then two-two stars form on the place of circles from back side

0 Union Bank of India Clerks Previous Paper Download

2010 Clerks Exam Question Paper Union Bank of India Probationary Officers

1) The eleventh 'five year plan' of India is for the five years ranging from—
A. 2009–2014
B. 2008–2013
C. 2007–2012
D. 2006–2011
E. None of these
Ans: C.

2) DSCR indicates the ability of a company to—
A. Meet its current liabilities
B. Service its shareholders
C. Meet its long term debt obligations
D. Raise further capital
E. None of these
Ans: C.

3) An IPO is—
A. Initial price offered by a private limited company to its shareholders
B. An offer by an unlisted company for sale of its shares for the first time to the public
C. Used to increase the share capital of an unlisted company
D. A book building process
E. None of these
Ans: B.

4) A decreasing current ratio indicates—
A. A stable liquidity
B. An increasing liquidity
C. A strained liquidity
D. Satisfactory current solvency
E. None of these
Ans: E.

5) Private equity investors, invest in a company based mainly on—
A. The age of the company
B. The location of the company
C. The activity undertaken by the company
D. The creditability and the valuation of the company
E. The existing profitability of the company
Ans: E.

6) The synagogue is generally—
A. An epic
B. A religion
C. Jewish House of Prayer
D. The Parsi temple
E. A palace
Ans: C.

7) Deuce is a team used in—A. Polo B. Lawn tennis C. Badminton D. Boxing
E. Volley ball
A. a, b, c
B. b, c, d
C. c, d, a
D. a, b, e
E. b, c, e
Ans: E.

8) ISI is the intelligence agency of—
A. United Kingdom
B. United States of America
C. Israel
D. Pakistan
E. India
Ans: D.

9) Air Traffic Controller's job involves—
1) Control of air traffic in and within vicinity of airport
2) Control of movement of air traffic between altitude, sectors and control centres
3) Following established procedures and policies for air traffic control
4) Control of commercial airline flights according to government regulations
5) To authorize and regulate commercial airline flights
A. 1, 2
B. 2, 3
C. 1, 2, 3, 4
D. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5
E. 3, 4, 5
Ans: A.

10) Animal assisted therapy is employed in—
A. Operations
B. ICU
C. Old age homes
D. Training animals
E. Natural healing
Ans: D.

11) In broad gauge, the distance between the rails is—
A. 1•00 metre
B. 3 metre
C. 1•67 metre
D. 2•67 metre
E. 0•76 metre
Ans: C.

12) Who is Indra Nooyi ?
A. CEO Coca Cola
B. CFO PepsiCo)
C. Managing Director Nano Division
D. India's permanent representative to UNO
E. None of these
Ans: B.

13) ET Now and CNBC TV18, TV Channels essentially broadcast—
A. English News
B. Classic English Movies
C. Political Events and News
D. Business and Economic News
E. All important national and international news in English
Ans: D.

14) Amongst the following sportsmen/women, who has won the first gold medal at Guangzhou Asian Games ?
A. Yuan Xiachao
B. Wang Migluen
C. Zhu Oianward
D. Takeshi Matsuda
E. Wu Jingbiao
Ans: A.

15) With which one of the following fields was Satyajit Ray associated ?
A. Films
B. Sports
C. Social Work
D. Drama
E. Short Stories
Ans: A.

16) 'Daniel Vettroi' is captain of which one of the following teams ?
A. New Zealand Cricket Team
B. South Africa Cricket Team
C. New Zealand Basket Ball Team
D. West Indies Cricket Team
E. Australia Cricket Team
Ans: A.

17) Who amongst the following carried Indian Tricolour at Guangzhou Asian Games ?
A. Sania Mirza
B. Saina Nehwal
C. Gagan Narang
D. Suranjay Singh
E. Randhir Singh

Ans: C.
18) Financial ratio analysis of a company helps in understanding—
1) The long term debt raising capacity
2) The short term solvency
3) The reasons for fluctuation in its stock prices4) The net worth of the company
5) The profitability
A. 1, 2, 3, 4
B. 2, 3, 4
C. 3, 4, 5
D. 3, 1, 2, 4
E. 1, 2, 4, 5
Ans: E.

19) Human breath is visible in winter but not in summer because—
A. The difference in outside pressure gives visibility to breath
B. Breath contains certain impurities and visible matters
C. Water vapour in breath condenses in cold air, making it visible
D. Breath has heat in it which evaporates in cold air giving visibility
E. None of these
Ans: D.

20) Which of the following is/are not the names of Seven North-Eastern States ?
1) Jorhat
2) Manipur
3) Meghalaya
4) Agartala
5) Dimapur
A. 1, 2, 3
B. 2, 3, 4
C. 3, 4, 1
D. 1, 4, 2
E. 1, 4, 5
Ans: E.

21) According to a recent newspaper survey, which one of the following is the most preferred language for leisure
reading among the Indian Youth ?
A. Hindi
B. Marathi
C. Bengali
D. Telugu
E. English
Ans: E.

22) Who was Dr) C) Rangarajan ?
A. Chairman, PMEAC
B. Member, Planning Commission
C. Chief Economist, IBA
D. RBI Governor
E. Member, Minority Commission
Ans: D.

23) Which of the following is an oilseed ?
A. Garlic
B. Clove
C. Cardamom
D. Cumin Seed
E. Mustard
Ans: E.

24) The RBI reviews its credit and monetary policy at regular intervals and also in between) What is the purpose of the same ?
1) To ensure that inflation does not cross the limit
2) To ensure that banks have enough liquidity
3) To ensure that cost of the fund does not reach a very high level
A. Only 1
B. Only 2
C. All 1, 2 and 3
D. Only 2 and 3
E. None of these
Ans: C.

25) The name of the white revolution is associated with—
A. J) V) Narlikar
B. J) C) Bose
C. Kurien Verghese
D. M) S) Swaminathan
E. C) Rangarajan
Ans: C.

26) The cabinet committee recently approved the 'IGMSY' a scheme for the welfare of the people of India) Who
amongst the following will get the benefit of the scheme ?
A. Mothers and pregnant women
B. Children upto 12 years of age
C. Youth
D. Old and Senior Citizens
E. All the above
Ans: A.

27) The Govt) of India provides direct financial support to which of the following schemes ?
A. Jeevan Bharati Scheme
B. ULIP
C. Sampoorna Grameen Rozgar Yojana
D. Packing Credit Guarantee Scheme
E. All of the above
Ans: C.

28) Who amongst the following is a famous Urdu author/poet who received Jnanpith Award recently ?
A. Akhlaq Khan Shahryar
B. ONV Kurup
C. Khushwant Singh
D. Krishna Sobti
E. None of these
Ans: A.

29) Who amongst the following is the author of the Book 'A Bend in the River' ?
A. V) S) Naipaul
B. Arun Shourie
C. Octavia Paz
D. Daniel Defoe
E. Walter Scott
Ans: A.

30) Which of the following is called the pink city of India ?
A. Kolkata
B. Lucknow
C. Kota
D. Hyderabad
E. Jaipur
Ans: E.

31) Which of the following states got a new Chief Minister without new assembly elections ?
A. Goa
B. Madhya Pradesh
C. Jharkhand
D. Gujarat
E. Delhi
Ans: C.

32) A two days National level conference/event was organised in Chandigarh in September 2010) Which was the
conference / event ?
A. Miss India 2010
B. Asian Women Hockey Finals 2010
C. Conference of the Finance Ministers of SAARC
D. National Rabi Conference
E. None of these
Ans: E.

33) Which of the following Summits took place in Hanoi in October 2010 ?
A. ASEAN Summit
B. SAARC Summit
C. G-20 Summit
D. G-8 Summit
E. None of these
Ans: A.

34) The Reserve Bank does not have an office in—
A. Kanpur
B. Jaipur
C. Lucknow
D. Bhopal
E. Gulbarga
Ans: E.

35) A Badminton player is supposed to know the meaning of the term—
A. Bouncer
B. Love
C. LBW
D. Punch
E. Booster
Ans: B.

36) Who amongst the following is the receipient of the Rajiv Gandhi Khel Ratna Award 2010 ?
A. Ishant Sharma
B. Hariom Singh
C. M) S) Dhoni
D. Sushil Kumar
E. Saina Nehwal
Ans: E.

37) India extended a credit of US $ 250 million to which of the following countries, which will be used for infrastructural
development there ?
A. China
B. Pakistan
C. Myanmar
D. Nepal
E. Sudan
Ans: D.

38) Which one of the following makes a case for intensive, modern farming ?
A. Higher output using organic method
B. Remunerative price
C. Cropping pattern
D. Land acquisition for nonagricultural needs
E. None of these
Ans: C.

39) In which one of the following States multi-thousand-foodgrain scam has recently been noticed by the High Court ?
A. M) P)
B. Orissa
C. Bihar
D. Jharkhand
E. U) P)
Ans: C.

40) Which one of the following is the objective of Corporate Social Responsibility (CSR) issued by the Government ?
A. To ensure that Companies take steps for rehabilitation of project affected people
B. To ensure that Companies use some of their profits for educating the project affected people
C. To ensure that Companies provide health care to project affected people
D. To ensure that Companies take preventive measures to avoid environmental damage
E. None of these
Ans: A.

41) A hockey player is supposed to know the meaning of the term—
A. Dead Ball
B. Bouncer
C. LBW
D. Penalty Corner
E. Frozen Ball
Ans: D.

42) Which one of the following have provided bailout package to Ireland to deal with its debt crisis ?
A. EU only
B. IMF only
C. World Bank only
D. Only A. and B. above
E. All A., B. and C. above
Ans: D.

43) Which one of the following Indian Company is the only company from India to be included in the Top Ten 2010
Value creators Global Ranking released by global management consulting firm BCG ?
A. RIL
B. Tata Steel
C. Bharti Airtel
D. JSPL
E. Bajaj Auto
Ans: D.

44) Which one of the following has launched guidebook on standards for exporters ?
A. RBI
B. SEBI
C. IBA
D. UNIDO
E. UNESCO
Ans: D.

45) BIPA with Sudan comes into effect was the news in various newspaper recently) It is an agreement for—
A. Investment in a country
B. Peaceful use of atomic power
C. Allowing students to visit each other's nation
D. Allowing people to come for medical treatment
E. To form an alliance with each other in case of a war
Ans: A.

46) In which one of the following sports Sandhya Rani Devi bagged Silver in Asiad 2010 Games ?
A. Shooting
B. Squash
C. Taekwondo
D. Ten-pin bowling
E. Wushu
Ans: E.

47) Which of the following terms is normally not seen in the field of International Relations ?
A. Exchange Rate
B. Free Trade
C. MFN
D. Alluvial Soil
E. OECD
Ans: D.

48) According to mid term review of Indian economy, which one of the following segments will be the major contributor to GDP growth ?
A. Agriculture
B. Industry
C. Services
D. Mining
E. None of these
Ans: C.

49) Which of the following films directed by Aamir Khan was sent for OSCARs Award nominations from India ?
A. Rang De Basanti
B. Peepli Live
C. Tare Zamin Par
D. Lagan
E. None of these
Ans: B.

50) In which one of the following states, population growth rate is lower than national average ?
A. Delhi
B. Gujarat
C. Chhattisgarh
D. Himachal Pradesh
E. Orissa
Ans: E

19 RRB Railway Recruitment Board 2008 Solved Question Paper

RRB 2008 Solved Paper Question paper

1) When a ray of light passes from an optically denser medium to a rarer medium, it
a. Remains un deviated b. Bends towards normal
c. Bends away from normal d. None of these

2) Who is the author of "Anandmath" ?
a. Rabindranath Tagore b. Bankim chandra Chattopadhyaya
c. Sarojini Nayadu d. Jyotiba Phule

3) Thimpu is the capital of -
a. Nepal b. Bhutan
c. Thailand d. Myanmar

4) The time period of a seconds pendulum is
a. 1 second b. 4 seconds
c. 3 seconds d. 2 seconds

5) The nuclear fuel in the sun is
a. Helium b. Uranium
c. Hydrogen d. Oxygen

6) The second’s hand of a watch is 2 cm long) The velocity of its tip is
a. 0)21 cm/sec) b. 2)1 cm/sec)
c. 21 cm/sec) d. None of these

7) In diesel engine, ignition is caused by
a. Spark b. Automatic starter
c. Compression d. Friction

8) The mass-energy equivalence, relationship E = mc2 was propounded by
a. Max Plank b. Einstein
c. Newton d. Hertz

9) The filament of bulb is made of
a. Tungsten b. Iron
c. Nichrome d. Carbon

10) Anti-knocking can be lessened by
a. Iso Octane b. N Heptane
c. TEL d. Benzene

11) In which of the following oxidation shows a positive oxidation state)
a. CO b. N2O
c. NO d. F2O

12) Which of the following is used in photography?
a. Silver Bromide b. Sodium Bromide
c. Potassium Chloride d. Sodium Sulphate

13) Which of the following is used in accumulator cell?
a. Copper b. Iron
c. Lead d. Zinc

14) Choose the wrong statement :
a. Single magnetic poles can exist
b. Magnetic poles are always of equal strength
c. Like poles repel each other
d. None of these
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15) Laws of electrolysis are given by:
a. Farady b. Maxwell
c. Lenz d. Bohr

16) Flemings left hand rule is used to fine out:
a. Direction of magnetic field due to flow of current
b. Direction of induced current due to effect of magnetic field
c. Direction of motion of a current carrying conductor in magnetic field
d. None of these

17) The pH of a neutral solution at 250C is :
a. 0 b. 1)0
c. 7)0 d. 1)4

18) The raw material used for the manufacture of Portland cement is:
a. Limestone and clay b. Alumina, clay and gypsum
c. Gypsum and limestone d. Gypsum and clay

19) CaOCI2 is the chemical formula for a compound commonly known as:
a. Soda Ash b. Lime
c. Bleaching Powder d. Plaster of Paris
20) The glass used for making laboratory apparatus is :
a. Pyrex glass b. Hard glass
c. Soft glass d. Safety glass
21) The iron produced in blast furnace is :
a. Pig iron b. Wrought ironc. Stainless steel d. Steel

22) Formation is a 40% solution of :
a. Methanol b. Methenal
c. Methanoic acid d. None of these

23) Which of the following is not an ore of aluminium :
a. Cryolite b. Feldspar
c. Bauxite d. Azurite

24) Rhombic monoclinic and plastic sulphur are:
a. Isomers b. Isotopes
c. Allotropes d. Hydrides of sulphur

25) The alkaline hydrolysis of oils or fats gives soap and :
a. Glycerol b. Ethenol
c. Glycol d. Ethanoic acid

26) The sight of a delicious food usually makes month watery) It is a :
a. Hormonal response b. Neural response
c. Optic response d. Olfactory response

27) Nitrogen fixing bacteria are normally found in :
a. Parasitic plants b. Epiphytic plants
c. Leguminous plants d. Aquatic plants

28) Powdery mildew of wheat is caused by:
a. Bacteria b. Virus
c. Fungi d. Protozoans

29) Septic sore throat is caused by :
a. Bacteria b. Virus
c. Fungi d. Protozoans

30) A person of blood group AB can give blood to :
a. ‘A’ and ‘B’ b. Only ‘AB’
c. ‘A’, ‘B’ and ‘O’ d. All of these

31) Cell activities are controlled by :
a. Chloroplast b. Nitochondria
c. Cytoplasm d. Nucleus

32) Which of the following helps eye to adjust the focal length of the eye lens :
a. Cornea b. Conjunctiva
c. Ciliary body d. Iris

33) When pollen of a flower is transferred to the stigma of the same plant, pollination type is referred to as :
a. Autogamy b. Allogamy
c. Xenogamy d. Geitonogamy